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Financial Risk Manager (GARP) · Part II

FRM P2 Liquidity and Treasury Risk: practice questions with answers

6 free exam-style questions on Liquidity and Treasury Risk for FRM P2 Part II. Try each one, then open the answer to read the explanation. Fincora has 49 original questions on this syllabus area.

Question 1

A trader holds a $50 million position in an emerging-market bond. Its daily return volatility is 1.8%. The proportional bid–ask spread has a mean of 0.40% and a standard deviation of 0.15%. Using the exogenous-spread (constant-plus-volatility) approach with a 99% confidence level (z = 2.326) and a spread multiplier of k = 3, what is the one-day liquidity-adjusted VaR?

  1. A $2.31 million
  2. B $2.52 million
  3. C $2.19 million
  4. D $2.42 million
Show the answer

Answer: A. 1. Market VaR = 50 × 1.8% × 2.326 = $2.0934m.
2. Liquidity cost = ½ × position × (mean spread + k × spread s.d.) = 0.5 × 50 × (0.40% + 3 × 0.15%) = 0.5 × 50 × 0.85% = $0.2125m.
3. LVaR = 2.0934 + 0.2125 = $2.31 million.

The half-spread reflects that positions are marked at mid but sold at the bid. In this example the liquidity add-on raises VaR by about 10%.

Question 2

Rumours about Ellisford Bank's solvency spread early on a business day. Its treasury team runs the 'own financial stress' scenario from its intraday liquidity stress tests. Which combination of effects should the scenario capture?

  1. A Ellisford can delay its own outgoing payments to conserve liquidity, while its counterparties keep sending payments to it on their usual schedule.
  2. B Counterparties delay payments to Ellisford and may cut intraday credit lines, while it must still make time-critical payments, so its liquidity need rises.
  3. C The value of collateral pledged at the central bank falls because of a market-wide sell-off, while Ellisford's own payment flows are unaffected.
  4. D A major counterparty suffers an operational outage and cannot send its payments, while all other participants behave normally toward Ellisford.
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Answer: B. The Basel Committee's intraday liquidity monitoring tools, discussed by Venkat and Baird, suggest testing intraday positions under four scenarios:

1. Own financial stress: the bank suffers (or is believed to suffer) a stress event. Counterparties delay their payments to the bank and may reduce intraday credit lines, while the bank must still settle time-specific and critical payments on time. Its peak intraday liquidity need rises.
2. Counterparty stress: a major counterparty suffers a stress event and cannot make payments, so expected inflows do not arrive.
3. Customer bank's stress: a customer of a correspondent bank suffers stress, affecting the correspondent's flows and the credit it has extended.
4. Market-wide credit or liquidity stress: for example, a fall in the value or eligibility of collateral used to generate intraday liquidity.

In an own-stress scenario, the bank should assume it cannot rely on incoming payments to fund outgoing ones and should check that its reserves, central bank collateral and committed lines cover its peak intraday need.

Question 3

Maplestead Bank has ample taxable income and a 21% marginal tax rate. It is choosing between a tax-exempt municipal bond yielding 3.40% and a taxable corporate bond of similar credit quality and maturity yielding 4.20%. Ignoring any disallowance of interest-expense deductions on funds used to carry municipal bonds, which statement is correct?

  1. A The municipal bond's tax-equivalent yield is 4.11%, so the corporate bond offers the higher after-tax return.
  2. B The municipal bond's tax-equivalent yield is 4.30%, so it offers the higher after-tax return.
  3. C The municipal bond's after-tax yield is 2.69%, so the corporate bond offers the higher after-tax return.
  4. D The break-even tax rate is 19.0%; because the bank's rate is above it, the corporate bond offers the higher after-tax return.
Show the answer

Answer: B. For a taxable investor, the tax-equivalent (before-tax) yield of a tax-exempt bond is:

TEY = tax-exempt yield / (1 − t) = 3.40% / 0.79 = 4.30%, above 4.20%.

Equivalently, the corporate bond's after-tax yield is 4.20% × 0.79 = 3.32%, below the municipal's 3.40%. The break-even tax rate is 1 − 3.40/4.20 = 19.0%; above it, the municipal bond wins.

In bank investment portfolio management, tax-exempt securities are attractive only when the bank has taxable income to shelter, which is why banks shift between municipals and taxable securities as earnings change (a form of tax management). Rules limiting interest-expense deductions on funds carrying municipals reduce the advantage and were set aside here.

Question 4

Corbel Bank's unencumbered liquid assets (market values, $ million) are Level 1 assets 300, Level 2A assets 400 (15% haircut) and Level 2B assets (eligible equities) 60 (50% haircut). Total net cash outflows over 30 days are 450. No secured funding, secured lending or collateral swaps mature within 30 days. Applying the Basel III haircuts and caps, what is the bank's liquidity coverage ratio (LCR)?

  1. A 111.1%
  2. B 148.9%
  3. C 126.2%
  4. D 93.3%
Show the answer

Answer: A. 1. Haircuts: Level 2A = 400 × 85% = 340; Level 2B = 60 × 50% = 30.
2. 15% Level 2B cap: the limits are 15/85 × (300 + 340) = 112.9 and 15/60 × 300 = 75; 30 is below both, so no adjustment.
3. 40% Level 2 cap: Level 2 may not exceed 2/3 × Level 1 = 2/3 × 300 = 200. Level 2 = 370, so 170 is excluded.
4. HQLA = 300 + 200 = 500, of which Level 2 is exactly 40%.
5. LCR = 500 / 450 = 111.1%.

The cap stops a bank meeting the LCR mainly with assets that may lose value or liquidity in stress.

Question 5

Glenmorris Bank has two funding needs. It must cover a $40 million shortfall in its reserve account at the close of business today, and it needs $150 million for three years to fund a new book of fixed-rate commercial real estate loans. Which pairing of non-deposit funding sources is most appropriate?

  1. A Today: issue three-year senior notes; three-year need: borrow overnight federal funds and roll them over every day for three years.
  2. B Today: overnight federal funds or repo; three-year need: a fixed-rate term advance from the Federal Home Loan Bank, or term debt.
  3. C Today: borrow at the central bank discount window; three-year need: also rely on the discount window, as it is the cheapest source.
  4. D Today: issue three-month negotiable CDs; three-year need: roll three-month negotiable CDs over for the full three years.
Show the answer

Answer: B. Rose and Hudgins list the factors in choosing among non-deposit sources: relative cost, risk (interest rate risk and credit availability risk), the length of time the funds are needed, the size of the bank and its access to markets, and regulation.

- Overnight or very short needs (such as a reserve shortfall): federal funds purchased or repurchase agreements, which can be arranged within the day and repaid tomorrow.
- Longer-term needs, especially for fixed-rate assets: term borrowing such as Federal Home Loan Bank advances (available at fixed rates and long maturities against eligible collateral) or term debt, which match the maturity and rate profile of the assets.
- Central bank discount window: a backstop for short-term liquidity needs, not a routine source of term funding.

Funding long-term fixed-rate assets with continually rolled short-term money creates repricing (interest rate) risk and rollover (availability) risk, the mismatch that ALM is designed to control.

Question 6

Which design choice for a bank's internal liquidity stress test is most consistent with sound practice?

  1. A Assuming wholesale funding can be rolled over in all scenarios because the bank has always been able to roll it over in the past.
  2. B Valuing the liquidity buffer at current market prices with no haircuts, because the assets are high quality.
  3. C Running idiosyncratic, market-wide and combined scenarios over several horizons, with run-off rates updated for recent fast deposit runs.
  4. D Running only a firm-specific scenario, because a market-wide stress would be addressed by central bank intervention.
Show the answer

Answer: C. Sound liquidity stress testing (as set out in the BCBS Principles for Sound Liquidity Risk Management and Supervision) uses a range of idiosyncratic, market-wide and combined scenarios, several time horizons (including intraday and days to months), conservative behavioural assumptions for deposits, wholesale funding, contingent commitments and collateral, and realistic stressed values for liquid assets. Assumptions should be challenged and updated with experience: the 2023 US regional bank failures showed that uninsured, concentrated deposits can run within hours. Results should feed into limits, the size of the liquidity buffer and the contingency funding plan.

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