US Certified Public Accountant (AICPA Uniform CPA Examination) · Taxation and Regulation
CPA REG Ethics, professional responsibilities and federal tax procedures: practice questions with answers
6 free exam-style questions on Ethics, professional responsibilities and federal tax procedures for CPA REG Taxation and Regulation. Try each one, then open the answer to read the explanation. Fincora has 52 original questions on this syllabus area.
Question 1
Delphine Quist is not an attorney, CPA or enrolled agent. She holds a valid PTIN and a 2026 Annual Filing Season Program Record of Completion. For a fee she prepared and signed Duarte Fenn's 2025 Form 1040. Under Circular 230 and the IRS rules for the program, which representation may Delphine provide for Duarte?
- A Represent him before a revenue agent who is examining the 2025 return she prepared and signed
- B Represent him before the IRS Independent Office of Appeals on the 2025 return she prepared
- C Represent him before a revenue officer collecting an unpaid balance on his 2025 return
- D Represent him in an examination of his 2023 return, which a different preparer signed
Show the answer
Answer: A. Unlimited practice before the IRS is open to attorneys, CPAs and enrolled agents (Circular 230 §10.3). An unenrolled preparer has only limited representation rights. Since 2016, these rights belong only to Annual Filing Season Program record holders. A record holder may represent a client only for a return she prepared and signed, and only before revenue agents, customer service representatives and similar IRS employees, including the Taxpayer Advocate Service. She may not appear before Appeals, revenue officers (collection) or IRS Counsel. Every paid preparer also needs a current PTIN.
Delphine prepared and signed the 2025 return, so she may represent Duarte before the revenue agent examining it.
Question 2
Which of the following fee or billing arrangements is permitted under Circular 230 as written (31 C.F.R. Part 10)?
- A A fee of 15% of the refund shown on the original 2026 Form 1040 that the practitioner prepares
- B Keeping the client's original records until an unpaid fee is settled, where state law gives no such right
- C A fee of 25% of any penalty reduction obtained in the IRS examination of the client's original 2025 return
- D Having the client's refund deposited into the practitioner's own account, with the fee taken out first
Show the answer
Answer: C. Contingent fees (Circular 230 §10.27). A practitioner may not charge a contingent fee for services connected with any matter before the IRS, except:
1. services connected with an IRS examination of, or challenge to, an original return (or an amended return or claim filed within 120 days after a written notice of examination);
2. a refund or credit claim filed solely for statutory interest or penalties; and
3. services in a judicial proceeding under the IRC.
A fee based on the penalty reduction won in an examination of an original return falls within exception 1. A percentage of the refund on an original return the practitioner prepares does not.
Other options.
- §10.28 requires the practitioner to return the client's records promptly on request. Where state law does not allow records to be kept in a fee dispute, an unpaid fee is no excuse.
- §10.31 prohibits endorsing or otherwise negotiating a client's federal tax refund. This includes directing the payment into an account the practitioner owns or controls.
Court decisions. In Loving v. IRS (D.C. Cir. 2014) and Ridgely v. Lew (D.D.C. 2014), the courts held that the IRS cannot use Circular 230 to regulate return preparation and ordinary refund claims, so the contingent-fee ban is not currently enforced against preparers for that work. The question asks what the text of §10.27 permits, and the text still prohibits a contingent fee for preparing an original return.
Question 3
Bexley Tax Group, a paid return preparer, wants to use information from its clients' 2026 returns to send them offers from its affiliated insurance agency. Under IRC §7216 and its regulations, which statement is correct?
- A It may use the information without consent, because the agency belongs to the same group of companies
- B It must first obtain each client's signed and dated written consent to that use, before using the information
- C It may use the information if it later gives each client a notice and a chance to opt out
- D It may use the information without consent once each client's return has been filed and accepted
Show the answer
Answer: B. IRC §7216 makes it a crime (a misdemeanor) for a return preparer knowingly or recklessly to disclose or use return information for any purpose other than preparing the return. §6713 adds a civil penalty.
Reg. §301.7216-2 allows certain uses without consent, such as disclosure within the preparer's own firm for preparing returns, or disclosure under a court order. Reg. §301.7216-3 requires the taxpayer's written consent, signed and dated, obtained before the information is used to solicit other services, such as insurance or investment products. An after-the-fact opt-out does not meet this requirement.
Question 4
Under the Uniform Accountancy Act model, which of the following is a ground on which a state board of accountancy may discipline a CPA?
- A The CPA declined to accept a prospective client who could not pay fees
- B The CPA charged hourly rates higher than those of other local CPA firms
- C The CPA's firm employs professional staff who do not hold CPA licenses
- D The CPA was suspended from practice before the IRS under Circular 230
Show the answer
Answer: D. The Uniform Accountancy Act lists grounds on which a board may revoke, suspend or refuse to renew a license, or impose lesser sanctions. They include:
- fraud or deceit in obtaining a license;
- dishonesty, fraud or gross negligence in practice;
- violating professional standards or the board's rules;
- conviction of certain crimes; and
- revocation or suspension of the right to practice before any state or federal agency.
A Circular 230 suspension by the IRS is therefore a ground on which the state board may act separately. The other options describe lawful business choices.
Question 5
Ivo Danek filed his 2023 Form 1040 on March 3, 2024. It was due April 15, 2024. After an examination, he paid an additional $9,200 of 2023 tax on October 1, 2026. He now believes the examination adjustment was wrong. What is the last day on which he can file a claim for refund of the $9,200?
- A April 15, 2027
- B March 3, 2027
- C October 1, 2028
- D October 1, 2029
Show the answer
Answer: C. IRC §6511(a): a refund claim must be filed by the later of:
- 3 years from the date the return was filed. A return filed early is treated as filed on its due date (§6513(a)), so this period ends on April 15, 2027.
- 2 years from the date the tax was paid. For the October 1, 2026 payment, this period ends on October 1, 2028.
The later date is October 1, 2028.
If the claim is filed under the 2-year rule, the refund is limited to tax paid in the 2 years before the claim (§6511(b)). The whole $9,200 was paid within that window, so all of it can be refunded.
Question 6
The IRS asserts the civil fraud penalty under IRC §6663 against Lucan Ferris for 2025. Which statement is correct?
- A Lucan must disprove fraud by a preponderance of the evidence; the penalty is 75% of the entire underpayment
- B The IRS must prove fraud beyond a reasonable doubt; the penalty is 40% of the underpayment due to fraud
- C Both the 75% fraud penalty and the 20% accuracy-related penalty apply to the same part of the underpayment
- D The IRS must prove fraud by clear and convincing evidence; the penalty is 75% of the underpayment due to fraud
Show the answer
Answer: D. Civil fraud penalty:
- The penalty is 75% of the portion of the underpayment attributable to fraud (IRC §6663(a)).
- The IRS bears the burden of proof (§7454(a)) and must prove fraud by clear and convincing evidence (Tax Court Rule 142(b)).
- Once the IRS proves that any portion of the underpayment is due to fraud, the whole underpayment is treated as fraudulent, except any part the taxpayer proves by a preponderance of the evidence is not (§6663(b)).
Related rules:
- The 20% accuracy-related penalty does not apply to the portion on which the fraud penalty is imposed (§6662(b)).
- For a fraudulent return, there is no statute of limitations on assessment (§6501(c)).
- Criminal tax evasion is a separate offense and must be proved beyond a reasonable doubt.
Keep practising Ethics, professional responsibilities and federal tax procedures
Sign up free to practise this syllabus area in full, sit timed CPA REG mocks and see your score by area. Every question on Fincora is written by us; none are past exam papers.
More CPA REG syllabus areas
Practice questions are for study only and are not official exam questions. Back to CPA REG mock exams and practice.