Chartered Financial Analyst · Level I
CFA L1 Fixed Income: practice questions with answers
6 free exam-style questions on Fixed Income for CFA L1 Level I. Try each one, then open the answer to read the explanation. Fincora has 88 original questions on this syllabus area.
Question 1
Halvorsen Shipping ASA is issuing a 7-year senior unsecured bond. Which of the following provisions in the bond indenture is a negative covenant?
- A Halvorsen may not issue additional senior debt if doing so would raise its net debt-to-EBITDA ratio above 3.5x.
- B Halvorsen must maintain insurance on its vessels at no less than their replacement value.
- C Halvorsen must deliver audited financial statements to the trustee within 120 days of each fiscal year-end.
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Answer: A. Affirmative covenants state what the issuer must do (pay interest and principal, maintain insurance and assets, comply with laws, report to the trustee). Negative covenants state what the issuer must not do, protecting bondholders from actions that dilute their claim or raise risk, such as restrictions on additional debt, negative pledges, limits on asset sales and restrictions on distributions. A cap on new senior debt tied to a leverage ratio is a negative covenant.
Question 2
Grafton Industrial's issuer credit rating from a major rating agency is BBB-. Grafton plans to issue subordinated unsecured bonds. The rating on this new issue is most likely:
- A below BBB-, possibly speculative grade, because the bonds rank behind Grafton's senior debt in the priority of claims.
- B BBB-, because an issue rating is always the same as the issuer rating.
- C above BBB-, because subordinated bonds carry higher coupons that compensate investors for their risk.
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Answer: A. An issuer rating reflects the risk of the issuer's senior unsecured debt. Individual issues are notched up or down from it according to their priority of claims: secured debt may be rated higher, and subordinated debt lower, because subordinated holders recover less in default. BBB- is the lowest investment-grade rating, so notching a subordinated issue down from BBB- would most likely put it in speculative (high-yield) grade.
Question 3
Which statement best describes secondary market trading in corporate bonds?
- A Most trading takes place over the counter, with dealers quoting bid and offer prices, and bid-offer spreads are wider for less liquid issues.
- B Most trading takes place on organized exchanges through a central order book, so prices for all issues are continuously visible.
- C Most trading takes place in periodic auctions run by each issue's underwriters, which set a single clearing price for the issue.
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Answer: A. There are many thousands of corporate bond issues, most of which trade infrequently, so a central exchange order book is not practical. Secondary trading is mainly over the counter: investors trade with dealers (increasingly through electronic platforms) who quote bid and offer prices and carry inventory. The bid-offer spread is the dealer's compensation and is a measure of liquidity: it is narrow for large, recent, highly rated issues and wide for small, old or lower-rated issues.
Question 4
The government spot curve is upward sloping. Which statement about the related par curve and forward curve is most accurate?
- A The par curve lies above the spot curve, and the forward curve lies below the spot curve.
- B The par curve and the forward curve both lie above the spot curve.
- C The par curve lies below the spot curve, and the forward curve lies above the spot curve.
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Answer: C. A spot rate for maturity T is a geometric average of the 1-period forward rates up to T. If spot rates rise with maturity, each additional forward rate must be above the current spot rate, so the forward curve lies above the spot curve.
A par rate is the coupon rate that prices a bond at par using all the spot rates up to maturity, so it is a weighted average of those spot rates, with most weight on the final cash flow. With an upward-sloping spot curve, the earlier (lower) spot rates pull the par rate below the spot rate for the same maturity. Order for an upward-sloping curve: par < spot < forward.
Question 5
Sovereign credit analysts distinguish between a government's ability to pay its debts and its willingness to pay. Which of the following observations about the Republic of Tarsena relates most directly to its willingness to pay?
- A Tarsena's income per capita is low, and its export earnings depend heavily on a single commodity.
- B Tarsena has twice restructured its foreign-currency bonds in the past 15 years despite holding adequate foreign exchange reserves.
- C Tarsena's general government debt is 95% of GDP, and interest payments absorb 18% of government revenue.
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Answer: B. A sovereign's credit quality depends on both its ability to pay (economic strength, fiscal position, external position, monetary flexibility) and its willingness to pay. Willingness matters because sovereign immunity means bondholders usually cannot seize assets or force a government to pay through the courts.
Analysts assess willingness through the institutional and political assessment: the effectiveness and stability of institutions, the rule of law, respect for contracts and property rights, and the government's track record of honoring its debts. A history of restructuring debt when the government could have paid is a strong signal of weak willingness to pay, which leads to lower ratings and higher yields.
Question 6
A bond that pays coupons semiannually has a yield to maturity of 6.40%, stated on a semiannual bond basis. An analyst wants to compare it with bonds that pay coupons annually. The bond's yield to maturity stated on an annual-compounding basis is closest to:
- A 6.30%
- B 6.40%
- C 6.50%
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Answer: C. A yield on a semiannual bond basis is twice the semiannual periodic rate: 6.40% / 2 = 3.20% per half-year.
Equivalent annual-compounding yield = (1 + 0.032)^2 - 1 = 1.065024 - 1 = 6.50%.
The more frequent the compounding, the lower the stated annual rate needed for the same effective return, so the annual-basis yield is above 6.40%.
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